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VAR Mapping
 
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kunduanil
Posted: 26 August 2008 09:20 PM   [ Ignore ]  
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Total Posts:  40
Joined  2008-05-09

Hi David,

Didn’t get the logic behind mapping to EUR Spot in Forward foriegn currency contract screencast. I mean why did u choose k12*j12?

Anil

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David Harper, CFA, FRM, CIPM
Posted: 26 August 2008 09:50 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 1 ]  
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Total Posts:  1286
Joined  2006-09-24

Hi Anil,

Thanks for viewing that. It is just to convert the future value to a present value. That’s the mapping part right there.

The forward is to buy EUR 100 in future (EUR +100 FV) in exchange for (selling) $130.xx US in future. What is EUR 100 in US PV? = EUR 100 * exchange rate * PV factor = $125 USD PV. In this way, the most important of the three mapping is converting the future buy of EUR into present USD. This is mapping the instrument (partially) to a long position on the spot rate.

Similarly, selling the $130 in FV = -125 in PV.

It is all to “map” the instrument onto the 3 factors in PV terms. Now risk becomes a function of stressing the three mapped-to-factors.

David

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