P2.T6.213. Credit value at risk (CVaR)
Questions:
213.1. Becky the Risk Analyst is trying to estimate the credit value at risk (CVaR) of a three-bond portfolio, where the CVaR is defined as the maximum unexpected loss at 99.0% confidence over a one-month horizon. The bonds are independent (i.e., no default correlation) and identical with a one-month forward value of $1.0 million each, a one-year cumulative default probability of 4.0%, and an assumed zero recovery rate. Which is nearest to the one-month 99.0% CVaR?
- $989,812
- $1.0 million
- $1.7 million
- $2.3 million
213.2. Assuming a credit loss distribution characterizes a portfolio of bonds or obligations, each of the following is true the credit loss distribution EXCEPT:
- If potential losses are increasing to the right, such that x-axis is absolute|Loss| and Y-axis is f(x), the distribution will have positive skew
- The mean of the distribution is the expected credit loss (EL) and it is generally expected that loan loss reserves should accumulate as a provision against EL and funded by (priced) additional yield as compensation for default risk
- Increases in default correlation will not impact the portfolio's unexpected loss (UL) but will shift the portfolio expected loss (EL)
- Portfolio UL varies with confidence, and at some (very) low confidence will correspond to a single standard deviation (one sigma) about the EL, but economic and regulatory capital will typically require multiples of (beyond) one standard deviation such that typically EC = multiplier * UL (@ 1 sigma)
213.3. A one-factor Gaussian copula model can be used to estimate the credit value at risk (CVaR) of a large portfolio of (unrealistically) similar loans. Under this model, we can be (X)% confident that the percentage of losses over a (T) year horizon will be less than V(X,T), where Q(T) is the probability of default by time (T) and rho is the copula correlation between any pair of loans:![[IMG]](http://www.bionicturtle.com/images/forum/1004_213_3_copula.png)
For a large retail loan portfolio, a bank wants to use this single-factor copula, which is essentially similar to the Basel II/III IRB formula for credit risk, in order to estimate a one-year 99.9% confident CVaR. The bank assumes the following:
-A total portfolio of $100.0 million consisting of many retail loan exposures,
-An average one-year default probability, Q(T), of 1.0%
-A copula correlation parameter, rho, of 0.25
-A recovery rate of 40.0%
Per an inverse standard normal CDF, we can lookup or compute that N(3.09) ~= 99.9% and N(-0.91) ~= 18.4%. Which of the following is nearest to the one-year 99.9% CVaR?
- $3.8 million
- $11.0 million
- $24.7 million
- $30.3 million
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Zay 18 Nov 2012
Is it true that the Expected Loss (EL) is used to back-test the Allowance for loan & lease losses (ALLL) models?