Question about Bionic Turtle's 2009 FRM Program
07 Jan 2009
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Please find links to earlier episodes (#1 to #9) at the end of this note. We are following the sequence of GARP's 2008 FRM Study Guide.
This latest screencast episode (Operational Risk A) begins the Operational Risk discipline. This screencast episode has a 121+ page PowerPoint you can download in two parts (part 1= hour plus part 2 = 50 minutes). There is a lot of material, so I'll just offer a few tips that may help.
The first reading in the Operational Risk discipline (Linda Allen) introduces a persistent dilemma: we are most interested in the (extreme) loss tail where catastrophically bad things happen, but we rarely have enough data to discern robust patterns in the tail. Rare events (low frequency, high severity) don't create large data sets!
So we are not surprised that the authors of the Deutche Bank case (LDA at work) must use a parametric distribution to model their extreme loss tail (losses above $50 million): they do not have enough internal data to use an empirical distribution based on their own history.
As a consequence of this classic "data dilemma," the extreme value theory (EVT) introduced by Paul Wilmott in the Quant Discipline plays a big role in operational risk. Where there is not enough data to rely on empirical distributions, we lean on EVT-based parametric distributions (e.g., the GPD is a "specialty" distribution, meant to characterize the pattern of losses in excess of some threshold. It's whole job function is to describe the extreme loss tail).
There are several OpRisk approaches to memorize. But here is a guiding principle:
Several customers wrote to say they find the DB LDA reading difficult. Here is my " cliff notes" version of the DB LDA approach:
In Op Risk, we build on the foundation laid by Gujarati in the Quantitative Discipline. In my opinion, sometimes we need to "go backwards in order to make progress." If the distributional ideas here are difficult, consider first reviewing the more basic distributional ideas in Gujarati.
The LDA approach compounds a typically discrete frequency distribution with a typically continuous severity distribution. To the member page, I uploaded two illustrative spreadsheet examples of this: one compounds parametric distributions, the other compounds/tabulates empirical distributions.
As mentioned, The DB LD "grafts" a parametric distribution (i.e., for the loss tail), onto an empirical distribution for the body.
I uploaded an illustrated spreadsheet example, for this, too. This is a "poor man's" version of the DB piece-wise model. In both cases,
For this episode (Credit Risk C), I uploaded the following all-new learning spreadsheets to the member page:
As I've uploaded about fifty (50) learning spreadsheets, I highlighted in yellow the more critical subset from an exam perspective. Yellow signifies an important or archetypal idea; yellow means: "I hope you review this spreadsheet." Non-yellow can be ignored, if your schedule does not allow. These "learning worksheets" can be accessed in three ways. None of the five new spreadsheets have a yellow highlight: I don't think you need to review them from an exam-passing strategy. But feel free to use them to explore these ideas further.
Paid member access the screencast in the member section. In addition to the viewable screencast:
Non-members can sample the start of the screencast tutorial here.
As always, I wrote some engagement-type questions just to provoke your thinking on the episode.
Linda Allen's "Extending the VaR approach to operational risk" itemizes several top-down and bottom-up models. Which of the model(s) is described by the following, or best matches the situation:
(i) Which is (are) Deutsche Bank's approach in "LDA at work?"
(ii) Which is (are) similar to Basel's Basic Indicator Approach (BIA)?
(iii) Which is (are) similar to Basel's Advanced Measurement approach?
(iv) Which is (are) good if we hope to diagnose and prevent operational losses?
One AIM asks us to "List and describe ways a firm can hedge against catastrophic operational losses." In regard to self-insurance, derivatives, and catastrophe bonds (cat bonds):
(i) Which are likely to, respectively, minimize and maximize moral hazard?
(i) Which are likely to, respectively, minimize and maximize basis risk?
(i) Where does Deutsche Bank use EXTERNAL data and why?
(ii) The "short story" version the DB LDA process is: for each cell, they compound two different distribution types, one of which is piece-wise. Explain what this means: what is a cell, what is compounding two distributions, and what is piece-wise?
(iv) How is the tail (i.e., losses greater than $50 MM) modeled?
(v) How do dependencies (dependencies = a more encompassing type of correlation but that allows for non-linear and indirect "correlations") enter in the DB approach?
(vi) How does insurance enter into the DB approach
(i) For a first-order operational VaR approximation, do we need the entire frequency distribution
(ii) For a first-order operational VaR approximation, do we need the entire severity distribution
(iii) Assume operational VaR over a ONE-MONTH period is $1 million. We apply the square root rule, to estimate a FOUR-MONTH operational VaR of $2 million; i.e., $1 million x SQRT(4/1) = $1 million x (2) = $2 million. Are we correct?
(i) What sources of model risk (as itemized in Dowd) are implicated in Ashcroft's Credit Risk reading called "Understanding the Securitization of Subprime Mortgage Credit?"
(ii) If you are a disciple of the strong form of efficient market hypothesis (EMH), and you are concerned with MINIMIZING your firm's model risk, where is your likely focus?
(iii) If you NOT a disciple of the strong form of efficient market hypothesis (EMH), and you are concerned with MINIMIZING your firm's model risk, where is your likely focus?
Here are links to Episodes #1 through #9:
Thanks very much.
David Harper, CFA, FRM, CIPM
Founder
www.bionicturtle.com
07 Jan 2009
05 Jan 2009
04 Jan 2009
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