Question about Bionic Turtle's 2009 FRM Program
07 Jan 2009
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Recall the protection given by a total rate of return swap (TRORS) is broader than a CDS or credit spread product. The TROR protects against default, credit deterioration and market risk. But this learning outcome asks about the ability of a TROR to hedge against operational risk.
Can a TROR hedge against operational risk. It's a matter of correlation: does an operational accident impact credit quality? The TROR hedges operational risk if operational damage impacts credit quality. This is sort of tautological and could apply generically to any risk. The TROR already hedges market value declines. So, if operational damage causes a decline in market value, the TROR therefore provides (at least a partial) hedge. This is, in fact, a cross-hedge.
This could be viewed as simple first derivative idea. Meissner defines specific operational-credit risk (page 68) as:
In other words, assume bond price is a function of company equity:
Then the specific operational-credit risk is given by a partial derivative of bond price with respect to equity:
Of course, this is merely a symbolic restatement of the idea "it hedges, if it in fact hedges." The fact we can use a bit of math gives us no additional insight on whether it hedges!
As illustrated below:
The TROR swap is a swap between the protection buyer (who transfers away the income and capital depreciation risk) and the protection seller (who is long the default risk, credit deterioration and market risk of the reference asset). But note the TROR payer is not without risk; she has sold default, deterioration and market risk, but replaced it with counterparty risk.
Following Meissner's example, which is to show how the TROR swap can hedge operational risk, assume at start of period the investor implements the hedge:
Then the bond price drops:
This illustrates the fuzzy link between operational risk (which has a fuzzy definition) and default/deterioration/market risk (which is concretely represented by the bond price). There is only an "operational hedge" to the extent that the operational accident causes a price drop. Meissner's example is illustrative but it is a tenuous hedge. Further, if it depends on the idea that a decline in equity value is the nearest proxy for operational risk, a more direct route is to buy a put on the equity.
Reference:
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07 Jan 2009
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Comments
I am a market maker and I would like a risk aversion model (hedge) in fast moving Forex market.
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