Question about Bionic Turtle's 2009 FRM Program
07 Jan 2009
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If an instrument pays level (equal) cash flows in a sequence, there are two formats (finite or infinite) and variations (pay now, pay later):
Pricing a perpetuity is the essence of simplicity: we "capitalize" the payment stream. If A = the perpetuity payment (the coupon, in bond terms) and r = the interest rate (the yield to maturity, in bond terms), the price of a perpetuity = A/r.
For example, if we assume an annual interest rate of 6%, a perpetuity that pays $100 every year is worth $1,666.67 = $100/6%.
If the perpetuity instead pays semiannually, it is worth the same because ($100/2)/(6%/2) = $50/3% = $1,667
An annuity is just a subclass of a perpetuity, where the number of periods is limited to (N) instead of unlimited...
...but the formula is less intuitive. Where A = the annuity amount (i.e., the coupon payment, in bond terms), N = the number of periods, and r = the interest (discount) rate, the present value (PV) of an annuity is given by:
It is easier to use the time value of money (TVM) keystrokes on the TI BAII+. Assume an annuity pays $100 every six months for ten years and the interest rate is 5%. We therefore input the following (note the periodicity is six months):
And then we solve for the present value:
Did you notice that this is the same as pricing a bond except the face value (principal) is zero?
And we get the same result if we use the formula:
07 Jan 2009
05 Jan 2009
04 Jan 2009
Comments
Hi David,
Under the section “Level (equal), sequential cash flows”, the first two bullet points should be switched: Perpetuity has unlimited cashflows and the annuity has finite cashflows.
Keep up the great work. The videos and tutorials have been tremendously helpful.
- Jay
Jay,
Thank, I appreciate that help! Thanks for feedback, too...I am blogging out more of the notes content this year and I am thrilled if repeat exposure might be helpful...David
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