Question about Bionic Turtle's 2009 FRM Program
07 Jan 2009
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The EditGrid spreadsheet below contains two sheets. Both calculate surplus at risk (SaR). The first is the worksheet I reviewed in an earlier screencast (based on the approach used in question 37 of the 2008 FRM sample exam). The second sheet replicates the approach used in Jorion Chapter 7.
This is easier if you see that this approach is identical to the calculation of diversified portfolio VaR only, instead of two assets, we are long pension assets and short pension liabilities. Don’t forget the formula for variance(a – b) = variance (a) + variance(b) - (2)cov(a,b) such that the variance of the surplus is given by:
Then we apply the typical “absolute VaR” calculation:
The second sheet show’s Jorion’s approach. The difference here is that we are given the volatility of surplus directly.
07 Jan 2009
05 Jan 2009
04 Jan 2009
Comments
Why is there a difference in final approach. Var = - mean(*del_t) + sigma*Z(alpha)*sqrt(del_t).
In Jorion433, the Sar does’nt take into account -50 or the expected increase in surplus.
Also, the (68) negative value is i dont know what?
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