Recent content by Imad

I wish GARP would read this trail of feedbacks to see how confused we are about the answers. This is a evidence of how tricky the exam was...I hope at the end that everyone will pass!

You are absolutely right! but still the answer is debatable because neither ES or Standard deviation are totally right answers...

ES is not easy to interpret...it is clearly mentioned in Schweser...I put Standard deviation instead! it's confusing...

I think you are right as you need to take the weights into consideration...

There were two questions, one about the Singaporean client with its USD revenues and the other about Nasdaq. Any thoughts?

Hi David, Slide 44 (2012.T8 b Investment), the shortfall should be (surplus + surplus growth) - SAR... You used surplus - SAR ($20-$18.1). Please verify and advise. Thanks Imad

Hi David, Thanks for your reply, however, Schweser book says: The standardized approach to estimating securitization exposures treats assets rated Baa3 or better similar to other credit riks. Riskier assets have higher risk weights applied, and if an asset has no external rating, then there is...

Hi David, If a bank retains the equity tranche of a securitization where the notional of the tranche is $10 mio and the tranche has a long term B- credit rating, what is the capital charge under the SA for securitization exposures? a- $400,000 b- $800,000 c- $1.2 mio d- $10 mio Your answer...

Hi Chris, Can you please show me the question in full. Thanks

Hi David, I respond to your above question: for 96% confidence level, we are in the "no default" zone, as such Var is zero and ES is also zero. We have a loss when the confidence level is 98% up to 99.9% because the bond will default by then, incurring a loss....am I right? Thanks Imad

Hi David, A bond with a face value of $10.0 million has a one-year probability of default (PD) of 1.0% and an expected recovery rate of 35.0%. What is the bond's one-year 99.0% expected shortfall (ES; aka, CVaR)? a. $3.25 million b. $6.5 million c. $9.1 million d. Not enough information: need...

Thanks David, I am aware of the formula but I can understand that when we "principal map", we assume a zero coupon bond with the average of maturity, right? Also, can you please elaborate about the following formula: The Returns (%) VaR = 1% yield volatility * 1.645 deviate * 2.885 mod...

Hi David, Assume a flat yield curve with spot rate of 4.0% at all maturities and normally distributed yield volatility of 1.0%. We are mapping a two-bond portfolio. Both bonds have a $100 million face value and pay an ANNUAL 4% coupon. One bond has a one year maturity; the other has a five...

Hi David, Hope you are well. Can you please explain below comment: "a counterparty may also request to receive cash from options positions that are in-the-money by having them revised to at-the-money". Thanks Imad

Hi David, I couldn't understand the difference between margined and non margined counterparties. I know that margined counterpaty is the one that uses a margined agreement. Am I right? Thanks Imad