The Garp questions were annoying because: 1. There was nothing on current issues. I almost forgot to revise this! 2. Errors in the answers (vvv annoying!), 3. Past papers were largely copies of previous years. It would have been fairer to have had more different questions to get experience on...
Just wanted to say I passed both with BT only (and YouTube). I started part 1 with the books, got as far as CAPM and was lost. I am an accountant by background, but have more and more risk mgmt exposure in the job. In the early days I sat on mathsisfun to redo basic algebra and learn what e was...
Thanks again to David, Nicole and the BT team, which helps make dreams come true!
And thanks to the forum participants. Without you guys dreams wouldn’t come true. I salute you all and wish you all the best. A virtual year together and well worth it. All the best, Luxsns aka Jonathan A.
In which category would the bond squeeze go? I don’t see it mentioned?
The closest is perhaps shortage in cash market, but this suggests positive basis? I thought Gregory says this is negative?
Thanks for clarifying!
Just to double check, I get how the 3 equations can be used to solve for (q), but this requires us knowing (p) i.e. .8024 and .1976.
How are these (p) values derived before we then get to the (q) values?
Thanks. I have a mental block about that one... found a simple example as well in the Jorion qs.
This is the property where the multiplier (weight) jumps out.
2.1. C. 1.25
Beta (USD, Portfolio) = Covariance(USD, Portfolio)/Variance(Portfolio).
Covariance (USD, 0.5*USD + 0.5*EUR) =
A quick maths/ covariance properties question on how covariance(x,p) is derived.
I get confused with how we square weights in the portfolio variance formula, but do not do this in the covariance (i,p) term i.e. weight(x)*covar(x,x) + weight(y)*covar(x,y).
Can you point me to the right...
I am glad I no longer work for a bank because these %s are driving me crazy... Can you check my logic please:
4.5 % mandatory equity/"core" + 2,5% mandatory CCB = 7 %. Both come from the same capital sources i.e. common equity and retained earnings.
HOWEVER, the CCB by definition is...
I am struggling with Hull's own question.
For (b) and (c) I get:
Max(3.5m,0) + 0,5 (corporate) * 0,005 (4 year maturity IRS) * 100m notional = RWA = 75m
Max(1m,0) + 0,5 (corporate) * 0,10 (6m commodity) * 50m notional = RWA = 3,5m
Can you help me understand where I am going...
All, this is an excellent thread (thanks!)
Delphi looks like an interesting case (2009) around short squeeze
I understand CTD to give a benefit to the CDS holder (insured) in that on default s/he can deliver a variety of bonds...