The CVA (in column col G) is a product of (Def Prob)*(EE)*(Discount factor); i.e., the essential equation 12.2 but just inside the summation
Then his (Def Prob) is a direct function of the hazard rate, λ, assumption; e.g., 8.33% in his "default" model
And the hazard is given by Spread/(1-Recovery) ... so he is using the (classic) credit risk approximation λ = Spread/(1-R) where he has the counterpartry spread as a (constant) input. So, that's the tactical explanation: given constant spread, S, in λ = S/(1-R), higher recovery, R, implies higher hazard rate. For example, his default assumptions are 40% recovery and Counterparty 5Y Spread = 500, such that λ = 500/(1-0.40)*1/10,000 = 8.33%; if we increase R to 50%, then λ = 10.5%. I hope that helps!
This site uses cookies to help personalise content, tailor your experience and to keep you logged in if you register.
By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our use of cookies.