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FIN_PRODS_HULL_CH6_INTEREST-RATE-FUTURES-PRACTICE-QUESTION-6.27

Why do we Short at Time =T and Go Long at Time = T* to lock in the forward rate for the span of time T to T* ..? Are we expecting a the value of the Canadian $to fall at Time = T* and so we are selling the Higher Rate VAD$ at Time = T and Buying the Cheaper CAD $at Time = T* and thus Hedging against a Fall in the Value of the CAD$ at Time = T* ..?