The idea we need when tranching bonds is "conservation:" when the bond is split into tranches, neither aggregate cash flows nor risk can be created/destroyed. In the case of risk, dollar duration (aka, value duration) is preserved, such that:
dollar duration of original bond [must] = dollar duration of FRN + dollar duration of inverse floater; so that:
($150 * 5.0 years) = $750 million = ($100 mm * FRN duration in years) + ($50 mm * inverse floater duration in years), but we can assume that dollar duration of FRN is approximately zero:
$750 mm dollar duration = $50 MM * inverse floater duration; i.e., this tranche absorbs all of the interest rate risk of the bond. I hope that helps!
Hello David, The links from the exam pdf or the one posted in your post here don't take you to the respective location/document. It just errors out. Can you please help?
Are you referring to this specific question (Mock Exam A - Question 19) being referred to in this thread or another exam/question? I was unable to locate any issues with links in Question 19. If you could be more specific about which links are not working, and which exam they are in, I would be happy to help update any links that are broken.
The problem is related to chrome browser. When one visits the forum it logs you out of the session. It is an issue with the website compatibility. Sorry for the troubles. I have started using Internet Explorer. It seems to work fine for the moment.
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