yes @David Harper CFA FRMHi @hellohi Can you take a look at the source http://www.treasurydirect.gov/instit/marketables/strips/strips.htm e.g.,
I think this is helpful also https://www.newyorkfed.org/aboutthefed/fedpoint/fed42.html e.g.,
Notice that the original security, in the example, is a 20-year bond that pays coupons every six months (20*2 = 40 coupons). If we price this bond, there are exactly 40 cash flows, although the final cash flow consists of both a coupon and the principal ($20,o00). This one security is "stripped" into 41 separate securities, one for each cash flow. The first coupon, for example, in six months "becomes" (i.e., the broker issues a new security) its own six-month zero-coupon bond with face value equal to the coupon cash flow. The second coupon, due in one year, is stripped into its own one-year zero-coupon bond. In this way, in addition to the $20,000 Treasury stripped into 41 more affordable pieces, each new security is a (virtually) risk-free zero-coupon bond. These are very useful in finance. For one thing, they have no reinvestment risk. For another, they can be perfectly matched with liabilities. I hope that helps!
it helped and I understand the concept well
but I have one question, the new securities looks like the zero-coupon bond in way that they pay one cash flow at the end or at maturity, but I still see difference that the zero-coupon bond is discounted (price less than the par) and I dont think that the STRIPS will be discounted??